Hello all! I was looking for an answer to my question on the travel board, but couldn't find it. I hope I am not repeating...
Hypothetically speaking, if a person wants to spend 90 days in Italy, and then an additional few weeks to 1 month in Spain, would that person need to apply for an Italian or Spanish visa? I have heard the advice that one should apply for the visa in the country in which they will spend the most time, but the actual "overage" time isn't in Italy - it's in Spain. Does that affect anything? And you can swap whatever countries you want in there, but the same basic questions applies: visa in the country where the time is most time is spent or visa in the country where you will be when you are over the 90 day limit?
I hope I asked that correctly.
Thanks!!